2014年2月27日星期四

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Code d'Examen: IL0-786
Nom d'Examen: Intel (Designing Flexible Wireless LAN Solutions)
Questions et réponses: 73 Q&As

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NO.1 What are antennas that radiate a toroid-shaped pattern?
A. broadband
B. directional
C. omni-directional
D. multi-directional
Answer: C

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NO.2 What is multipathing?
A. radio signals being reflected, refracted, and absorbed
B. a method used by wireless Access Points to correctly route traffic
C. a part of the design process used to determine Access Point location
D. a method used by mobile units to determine the best Access Point to associate with
Answer: A

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NO.3 Why should you use more than one antenna on an Access Point? (Choose two.)
A. The coverage area is larger.
B. An Access Point cannot operate with only one antenna.
C. Null zones within the coverage area are reduced or eliminated.
D. Reception is better if the transmitter is at the edge of the range.
Answer: CD

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NO.4 Which statement is true about digital signals as a receiver moves further away from
the transmitter?
A. The gain is higher.
B. The amplitude is lower.
C. The amplitude is higher.
D. The delay spread increases.
Answer: B

Intel examen   IL0-786   IL0-786 examen   IL0-786 examen   IL0-786 examen

NO.5 What is DSSS?
A. Digital Signal Stream System
B. Direct Sequence Spread Spectrum
C. Doppler Sending Spread Spectrum
D. Designated System Spread Spectrum
Answer: B

Intel   IL0-786 examen   IL0-786 examen   certification IL0-786   IL0-786

NO.6 Which two are characteristics of narrow band RF transmissions? (Choose two.)
A. require smaller antenna radiators
B. have an inherent high level of diversity
C. occupy less RF space than wideband RF transmissions
D. are more susceptible to interference than wideband RF transmissions
Answer: CD

Intel   IL0-786 examen   IL0-786   IL0-786

NO.7 Which type of network should you use for wireless communication between a
workstation and its peripherals?
A. Wide Area Network (WAN)
B. Local Area Network (LAN)
C. Personal Area Network (PAN)
D. Satellite Area Network (SAN)
Answer: C

certification Intel   IL0-786 examen   IL0-786   IL0-786

NO.8 What is FHSS?
A. Full Heterodyne Spread Spectrum
B. Frequency Hash Streaming System
C. Frequency Hopping Spread Spectrum
D. Function Harmonics Spread Sequence
Answer: C

Intel examen   IL0-786 examen   IL0-786 examen   IL0-786   IL0-786 examen

NO.9 What is the width of a single channel used by FHSS systems?
A. 1 MHz
B. 2 MHz
C. 11 MHz
D. 22 MHz
Answer: A

Intel   IL0-786   IL0-786 examen   certification IL0-786

NO.10 Which type is ambient RF background noise?
A. wideband
B. sideband
C. edgeband
D. narrowband
Answer: A

Intel   certification IL0-786   certification IL0-786   IL0-786

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L'avènement de la certification IBM pratique d'examen 000-732 questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: 000-732
Nom d'Examen: IBM (DB2 9 for z/OS Database Administrator)
Questions et réponses: 148 Q&As

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NO.1 What is the purpose of the following catalog health query? SELECT BNAME, BCREATOR,
BTYPE, DNAME FROM SYSIBM.SYSPLANDEP PD WHERE BTYPE IN ('T', 'V', 'A') AND NOT EXISTS
(SELECT * FROM SYSIBM.SYSTABLES WHERE CREATOR = PD.BCREATOR AND NAME =
PD.BNAME AND TYPE = PD.BTYPE);
A.For every row in SYSTABLES that indicates a dependency upon a table, view, or alias, there should be
a corresponding row in SYSPLANDEP.
B.For every row in SYSPLANDEP that indicates a dependency upon a table, view, or alias, there should
be a corresponding row in SYSTABLES.
C.For every row in SYSPLANDEP that indicates a dependency upon a table space, view, or a table that
has been altered, there should be a corresponding row in SYSTABLES.
D.For every row in SYSPLANDEP that indicates a dependency upon a table space, a table with a
VARCHAR column, or alias, there should be a corresponding row in SYSTABLES.
Correct:B

IBM   certification 000-732   000-732   000-732   000-732

NO.2 Which of the following is the correct configuration in a two way DB2 datasharing group?
A.MVSA (DB2A, active log A, workfile A) MVSB (DB2B, active log B, workfile B) Shared BSDS and
catalog and directory Coupling facility one Sysplex timer one
B.MVSA (DB2A, BSDS A, active log A, workfile A) MVSB (DB2B, BSDS B, active Log B, workfile B)
Shared catalog and directory Coupling facility one Sysplex timer one
C.MVSA (DB2A, BSDS A, active log A, workfile A, catalog & directory A) MVSB (DB2B, BSDS B, active
log A, workfile A, catalog & directory B) Coupling facility one Sysplex timer one
D.MVSA (DB2A, BSDS A, active log A, workfile A, catalog & directory A) MVSB (DB2B, BSDS B, active
log B, workfile B, catalog & directory B) Coupling facility one Sysplex timer one
Correct:B

IBM   certification 000-732   000-732   000-732   000-732

NO.3 A DBA was examining the Log Statistics, Log Activity section in the OMEGAMON Performance
Expert Tool and noticed a large value in the field UNAVAILABLE OUTPUT LOG BUFF. This is an
important and critical performance metric. What does this performance metric mean?
A.The OUTPUT BUFFER field of installation panel DSNTIPL was specified too large so memory was not
utilized and wasted.
B.The active logs were not stripped by DFSMS and the active log data sets have to be processed
sequentially so many times.
C.The active log data sets were not placed on different volumes to reduce contention so a large amount of
I/O activity showed up in the OUTPUT BUFFER field.
D.The OUTPUT BUFFER field of installation panel DSNTIPL was specified too small so application has to
wait while DB2 was busy writing the Active log data sets.
Correct:D

IBM   certification 000-732   000-732   000-732   000-732

NO.4 Which of the following RACF profiles would be used to allow IMS to access DB2 DSN1?
A.DSN1.IMS
B.DSNR.IMS
C.DSN1.MASS
D.DSN1.SASS
Correct:C

IBM   certification 000-732   000-732   000-732   000-732

NO.5 Which of the following buffer pool thresholds CANNOT be changed by the DBA?
A.Deferred write threshold (DWQT)
B.Immediate write threshold (IWTH)
C.Vertical deferred write threshold (VDWQT)
D.Virtual buffer pool assisting parallel sequential threshold (VPXPSEQT)
Correct:B

IBM   certification 000-732   000-732   000-732   000-732

NO.6 A DBA has been required by a new company policy to implement a new DB2 security method.
The company would like to separate the authorization IDs that can execute plans and packages
from the authorization IDs that can create new plans and packages. Which of the following explicit
system privileges allows the user to create new plans and packages without being able to also
execute them?
A.BINDADD
B.CREATEIN
C.BINDAGENT
D.CREATEDBA
Correct:C

IBM   certification 000-732   000-732   000-732   000-732

NO.7 An audit trace shows that TSO user TSOID1, with DBADM authority, is continually attempting to
update a table in DB2 subsystem DSN1 that is not supposed to be updated. Which of the following
will prevent access to the DB2 subsystem?
A.REVOKE DBADM FROM TSOID1
B.Change TSOID1's access to DSNR resource class DSN1.TSO to NONE
C.Change TSOID1's access to DSNR resource class DSN1.BATCH to READ
D.Change TSOID1's access to DSNR resource class DSN1.BATCH to NONE
Correct:D

IBM   certification 000-732   000-732   000-732   000-732

NO.8 A DBA wishes to audit all access to the non-audited table OWNER.EMPLOYEE. Assuming no
audit traces are started, which of the following steps are needed to audit access to this table?
A.-START TRACE AUDIT CLASS (5)
B.-START TRACE AUDIT CLASS (4, 5)
C.-START TRACE AUDIT CLASS (4, 5) and ALTER TABLE OWNER.EMPLOYEE AUDIT ALL
D.-START TRACE AUDIT CLASS (4, 5) and ALTER TABLE OWNER.EMPLOYEE DATA CAPTURE
CHANGES
Correct:C

IBM   certification 000-732   000-732   000-732   000-732

NO.9 Which statement best describes how multi-row fetch improves performance?
A.It reduces the amount of programming required.
B.It reduces the number of SQL statements issued.
C.It reduces the amount of data sent over a network.
D.It reduces the amount of I/O required to read a table.
Correct:B

IBM   certification 000-732   000-732   000-732   000-732

NO.10 If an object is created statically by a role within a trusted context and the ROLE AS OBJECT
OWNER clause is specified, who becomes the object owner when executing the package?
A.The role
B.The schema name
C.The owner keyword
D.The current SQLID (if set)
Correct:A

IBM   certification 000-732   000-732   000-732   000-732

NO.11 At which of the following times is the access control authorization routine (DSNX@XAC)
invoked?
A.At DB2 startup.
B.When executing a DB2 GRANT statement.
C.When DB2 has cached authorization information.
D.During any authorization check if NO was specified in the USE PROTECTION field of the DSNTIPP
panel.
Correct:A

IBM   certification 000-732   000-732   000-732   000-732

NO.12 An application has been running in production for a long time. The size of the objects involved
has not changed, but the application is running much slower than in the beginning. When should
the DBA consider manually REBINDing the application?
A.After REORGing the objects with inline statistics.
B.When dynamic SQL is used, but only after REORG and RUNSTATS has been performed.
C.Actually it is NOT recommended to perform manual rebinds but rather have DB2 perform automatic
rebinds.
D.If the size of the objects has not changed after gathering RUNSTATS data, the access path is very
unlikely to change, and therefore no REBIND is needed.
Correct:A

IBM   certification 000-732   000-732   000-732   000-732

NO.13 Which of the following DSNZPARMs is necessary to influence access path selection for certain
queries?
A.STDSQL
B.OPTHINTS
C.PARTKEYU
D.DESCSTAT
Correct:B

IBM   certification 000-732   000-732   000-732   000-732

NO.14 An end-user indicates that the DRDA client application accessing DB2 for z/OS is very slow.
However, other local applications accessing the same tables are running fine. What would
indicate that this could be a DB2 problem?
A.Calculate the non-nested CLASS 1 CPU time minus non-nested CLASS 2 CPU time. If the value is high,
it suggests a problem in the DDF address space.
B.Investigate the CLASS 3 suspension time. As class 3 time includes the time that DB2 spends
sending/receiving network messages, a high value is a possible indication that the network is
experiencing a slow-down.
C.Calculate the non-nested CLASS 1 Elapsed time (ET) minus non-nested CLASS 2 ET. If the value is
high, this can only be caused by spending most time in the application, and therefore the application
should be investigated.
D.Check to see if the DB2 remote connection can become inactive at commit (Type 2 inactive). If not, this
leads to a high non-nested CLASS 1 ET and is likely the cause of the performance problem. Inactive
connections will use less CPU than threads that stay active all the time.
Correct:A

IBM   certification 000-732   000-732   000-732   000-732

NO.15 Which parameter in WLM Application Environment controls the # of concurrent stored
procedures that can run in that particular environment?
A.NUMSRB
B.NUMTHR
C.NUMCTK
D.NUMTCB
Correct:D

IBM   certification 000-732   000-732   000-732   000-732

NO.16 A DBA needs to use the DSN command processor to delete DB2 packages that are no longer
needed. Which of the following choices is correct for the DBA to use?
A.SPUFI or QMF with the DROP statement
B.FREE Package (..)
C.DROP Package (..)
D.DROP PLAN () PKLIST (..)
Correct:B

IBM   certification 000-732   000-732   000-732   000-732

NO.17 A DB2 V9 system that is in New Function Mode:
A.cannot fall back.
B.can fall back to Compatibility Mode.
C.can fall back to New Function Mode*.
D.can fall back to Compatibility Mode*.
Correct:D

IBM   certification 000-732   000-732   000-732   000-732

NO.18 A company uses TRUSTED CONTEXT "ERP1" and ROLE "ERP_ROLE" as a security mechanism
to limit security exposure for an application. All the DB2 objects (databases, table spaces, tables,
indexes, views, plans and packages) have been created by that ROLE. The ROLE "ERP_ROLE"
has been assigned to User ID "DBA01" in order to perform DBA related tasks. When the user
"DBA01" leaves the company, the authorization ID is removed. Which of the following statements
are correct? (Select two answers)
A.None of these DB2 objects need to be recreated to re-grant the privileges.
B.The related plans and packages have to be recreated and the privileges re-granted.
C.When removing user "DBA01" privileges, none of these DB2 objects need to be dropped.
D.Only the related databases, table spaces, tables, indexes and views need to be recreated and the
privileges re-granted.
E.To remove the privileges of user "DBA01" on these related plans and packages, they have to be
dropped and as a result all associated privileges are revoked.
Correct:A C

IBM   certification 000-732   000-732   000-732   000-732

NO.19 There are dynamic SQL statements running in a subsystem that need to have their host
variables reoptimized at run-time, however the distribution of the values does not change very
much between execution. What is the most optimal bind parameter for these statements?
A.REOPT(NONE)
B.REOPT(ONCE)
C.REOPT(VARS)
D.REOPT(ALWAYS)
Correct:B

IBM   certification 000-732   000-732   000-732   000-732

NO.20 Given the following RUNSTATS utility statement: RUNSTATS TABLESPACE
DB2CERTDB.MYTBLSPC1 TABLE (MYTABLE1) COLUMN(ALL) INDEX REPORT YES UPDATE ALL
HISTORY ALL which of the following statements is true?
A.Cardinality statistics will only be collected on all columns of all indexes on table MYTABLE1.
B.Cardinality statistics will only be collected on the first column of each index on table MYTABLE1.
C.Cardinality statistics will only be collected on all columns of each index associated with table space
MYTBLSPC1.
D.Cardinality statistics will only be collected on the first column of each index associated with table space
MYTBLSPC1.
Correct:D

IBM   certification 000-732   000-732   000-732   000-732

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Dernières IBM 000-744 examen pratique questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: 000-744
Nom d'Examen: IBM (DS4000 Technical Version 1)
Questions et réponses: 140 Q&As

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NO.1 When examining a profile you see the following:
Drive at Enclosure 5, Slot 8 [mirrored pair with drive at enclosure 5, slot 9]
Drive at Enclosure 5, Slot 9 [mirrored pair with drive at enclosure 5, slot 8]
How should this be configured for enclosure loss protection?
A. Drive at Enclosure 5, Slot 9 [mirrored pair with drive at enclosure 5, slot 9]
Drive at Enclosure 5, Slot 9 [mirrored pair with drive at enclosure 5, slot 9]
B. Drive at Enclosure 3, Slot 1 [mirrored pair with drive at enclosure 5, slot 9]
Drive at Enclosure 5, Slot 9 [mirrored pair with drive at enclosure 3, slot 1]
C. Drive at Enclosure 5, Slot 17 [mirrored pair with drive at enclosure 5, slot 9]
Drive at Enclosure 5, Slot 9 [mirrored pair with drive at enclosure 5, slot 17]
D. Drive at Enclosure 5, Slot 9 [mirrored pair with drive at enclosure 15, slot 19]
Drive at Enclosure 15, Slot 19 [mirrored pair with drive at enclosure 5, slot 9]
Answer: B

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NO.2 What is the minimum number of HDDs required for RAID 6?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: D

IBM examen   000-744 examen   000-744

NO.3 You have been called in to assist the storage administrator who has been using Global Mirror with an
Enhanced Remote Mirroring (ERM) configuration to mirror the company inventory database from
headquarters to a data warehouse at a remote site. The storage administrator has been re-evaluating this
approach and needs your help to change the mirroring mode to Metro Mirroring for better control over
data going to the remote site. What must you do to help the storage administrator make the change?
A. advise the storage administrator to purchase two new licenses
B. break and re-establish the mirror relationship
C. back up the inventory data to tape
D. make the mode change in Storage Manager
Answer: D

IBM examen   000-744   000-744   000-744

NO.4 Which statement about DS4000 firmware upgrades is true?
A. The controller firmware and NVSRAM files are closely tied to each other and must be installed in the
proper combination.
B. Controller firmware and NVSRAM upgrades always require the ESM firmware to be upgraded at the
same time.
C. Only one controller must be accessible via the Ethernet or fiber in order to perform a controller
firmware upgrade.
D. The controller firmware and NVSRAM are independent from each other and can be upgraded at
different times.
Answer: A

IBM examen   000-744   000-744   000-744   000-744 examen

NO.5 You arrive at a customer site to implement the DS4000 solution and find that the customer wants to use
RAID 1+0 instead of RAID 5 for everything. What is a possible concern in this situation?
A. capacity
B. random IO performance
C. throughput performance
D. disk rebuild times
Answer: A

IBM examen   000-744   000-744   000-744 examen

NO.6 What is one disadvantage of managing a storage subsystem through the Fibre Channel IO path?
A. The fibre cable used for data IO cannot be used for management commands.
B. An access logical drive is required to communicate with the controllers.
C. Management commands cannot be encapsulated by the Fibre Channel protocol.
D. Ethernet cables to the controllers are also required to send management commands.
Answer: B

IBM examen   000-744   000-744   000-744   000-744

NO.7 What best describes a drive in eplaced status?
A. a drive that has replaced a failed drive and needs to be revived in order to complete the data recovery
process
B. a temporary status for a drive that has replaced a failed drive, but has not yet been reconstructed
C. a hot spare that has spared out for a failed drive in an array causing the hot spare to become the active
drive in the array
D. the final state of a drive that has replaced a failed drive and has been reconstructed
Answer: B

IBM   000-744   000-744

NO.8 In addition to the storage administrator's e-mail address, what information do you need to set up
e-mail alerts to be sent to the storage administrator?
A. sender's SMTP server address, the sender's e-mail address
B. sender's POP server address, the sender's e-mail address
C. storage administrator's POP server address, the sender's e-mail address
D. storage administrator's SMTP server address, the sender's e-mail address
Answer: A

IBM   000-744   000-744   000-744 examen   certification 000-744

NO.9 When performing an array migration, what is NOT required?
A. verification that there is no logical drive name duplication between the source and target systems
B. removal of mappings for all logical drives within the array being migrated
C. documenting the stripe order of the drives in the array for proper placement on the target subsystem
D. Advanced Maintenance Place Array Offline
Answer: C

IBM   000-744 examen   000-744   000-744

NO.10 A customer wants to use SATA drives to reduce costs. Which application matches SATA use?
A. TSM
B. Exchange
C. application with low IOPS
D. write once, read many times
Answer: C

IBM examen   certification 000-744   000-744

NO.11 A customer is combining two separate IT operations in one central location. They are using a DS4800.
Performance has been marginal. You look at the DS4800 Performance Monitor and observe that they are
well within the DS4800 performance specifications. Which tool can be used to determine the cause of the
problem?
A. Capacity Magic
B. Bandwidth Estimator
C. IOMeter
D. Disk Magic
Answer: D

IBM examen   000-744   000-744 examen   000-744 examen   000-744

NO.12 In the Major Event Log (MEL), what does immediate Availability Initialization (IAF) completed on
logical drive" indicate?
A. The drive has been internally reformatted.
B. The drive has just become accessible by the host.
C. LUN has just been replaced.
D. Hot sparing has occurred.
Answer: A

IBM examen   000-744   000-744   000-744 examen

NO.13 Three hosts are redundantly connected to a DS4000 system. Two are running a non-clustered
Windows 2003 Server and the other is running Red Hat Linux. How many Storage Partitions are used in
this configuration?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 3
D. 8
Answer: C

IBM   000-744   000-744   000-744 examen

NO.14 When configuring a customer's multimedia sequential I/O environment, what must you do?
A. use a small segment size with many disks
B. select a stripe size that is the same or an even multiple of the I/O size
C. use small segment size in conjunction with RAID 0
D. select a segment size that minimizes the occurrences of a single I/O on multiple drives
Answer: B

IBM   certification 000-744   000-744   000-744   certification 000-744   000-744

NO.15 How do you configure SNMP traps in the Storage Manager GUI?
A. from the Subsystem Management window, use the Storage Subsystem menu
B. from the Subsystem Management window, use the Advanced menu
C. from the Enterprise Management window, use the Advanced menu
D. from the Enterprise Management window, use the Edit menu
Answer: D

certification IBM   certification 000-744   000-744   000-744   000-744

NO.16 Which statement is FALSE regarding hot spare drives in the DS4000 subsystem?
A. The storage server will attempt to find a spare in the same enclosure as the failed drive first.
B. The storage server will give preference to a spare the same size as the failed drive.
C. The storage server will use a spare with at least the same capacity as the failed drive.
D. The controller may use a spare that is larger than the failed drive and block the remaining capacity
from use.
Answer: B

IBM examen   certification 000-744   000-744   000-744 examen   certification 000-744

NO.17 What does a flashing green LED on a drive indicate?
A. status ok
B. drive active
C. failed drive
D. hot spare in use
Answer: B

IBM   000-744   000-744   000-744 examen   000-744   000-744 examen

NO.18 When creating a FlashCopy of a logical drive, a repository logical drive is created. The repository
logical drive is for metadata and copy-on-write data when a change is made to the FlashCopy source
logical drive. By default, what is its size?
A. 10% of the source volume
B. 20% of the source volume
C. 50% of the source volume
D. 100% of the source volume
Answer: B

certification IBM   000-744   000-744   000-744 examen   certification 000-744

NO.19 In the exhibit, which management method is being used?
A. in-band
B. rlogin
C. client-host-band
D. out-of-band
Answer: D

IBM   000-744   certification 000-744   000-744   000-744 examen

NO.20 To generate a premium feature key that can be installed on a DS4000 subsystem, you must provide
certain information to IBM. This information includes the IBM machine type/model and what additional
information?
A. serial number, activation code, feature enable identifier and e-mail address
B. serial number, activation code, and e-mail address
C. activation code, e-mail address, controller firmware level
D. serial number, and e-mail address, drive firmware level
Answer: A

IBM examen   certification 000-744   000-744

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Code d'Examen: 000-918
Nom d'Examen: IBM (System Administration for IBM Informix Dynamic Server V11)
Questions et réponses: 125 Q&As

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NO.1 Given the following 'onstat -g arc' information:
IBM Informix Dynamic Server Version 11.10.FC1 -- On-Line -- Up 45:18:13 -- 38912 Kbytes
num DBSpace Q Size Q Len Buffer partnum size scanner
Dbspaces - Archive Status
name number level date log log-position
rootdbs 1 0 02/11/2007.22:01 43 0x5338c
1 02/14/2007.22:01 66 0x1b2e8
2 02/16/2007.22:01 75 0x1d2e8
dbs1 2 0 02/14/2007.22:01 43 0x5338c
1 02/14/2007.22:01 66 0x1b2e8
2 02/16/2007.22:01 75 0x1d2e8
On February 16, 2007, at 1:00 PM, a chunk in dbspace bs1 encountered hardware failure.
Which method will restore all of the data, to the point of failure, to a replacement disk drive?
A. a level 0 and 2 restore followed by a logical log restore
B. a level 0 and 1 restore only
C. a level 0 and 1 restore followed by a logical log restore
D. a level 0, 1, and 2 restore followed by a logical log restore
Answer: C

IBM   certification 000-918   000-918   000-918   000-918   000-918

NO.2 A user wants to save SQL explain output to the file: /tmp/myexplain.out. Which syntax should be used?
A. set explain on file to /tmp/myexplain.out
B. set explain on file /tmp/myexplain.out
C. set explain file /tmp/myexplain.out
D. set explain file to /tmp/myexplain.out
Answer: D

IBM   000-918   000-918 examen   000-918 examen

NO.3 You are receiving an error when trying to drop a chunk that you think is empty. Which command will
show you if any object is still allocating part of the chunk?
A. oncheck -pe
B. onstat -d
C. oncheck -cD
D. oncheck -cc
Answer:A

IBM examen   000-918 examen   000-918   000-918   000-918 examen   000-918

NO.4 A database administrator uses the following onconfig parameters:
TAPEDEV = /foo/resdev
How will this affect ontape backup?
A. ontape will use the directory /foo/resdev if it exists for storage space backup.
B. ontape will use the definitions for TAPEBLK from the file /foo/resdev.
C. ontape will write an informational message to the file /foo/resdev.
D. ontape will use the definitions for TAPESIZE from the file /foo/resdev.
Answer:A

IBM   000-918   000-918   000-918   000-918

NO.5 Which two parameters influence the total size of the resident portion of shared memory? (Choose
two.)
A. RESIDENT
B. BUFFERS
C. LOCKS
D. SHMBASE
E. PHYSBUFF
Answer: CE

IBM examen   000-918 examen   000-918

NO.6 Which command would be used to monitor disk activity per chunk?
A. onstat -g iog
B. onstat -d
C. onstat -g iof
D. onstat -F
Answer: C

IBM   000-918   certification 000-918

NO.7 The table called "state" has lock mode set to row within an unbuffered logged database. The onconfig
file has
USELASTCOMMITTED 'COMMITTED READ' set. One user session has run the following:
begin work;
select * from state where code = "AK";
update state set sname = "ALASKA" where code = "AK";
The results from the SQL select statement run by user one was:
AK Alaska
Session two runs the following (session one is still connected):
set isolation to dirty read;
select * from state where code = "AK";
What will session two see when they run the above SQL statements?
A. AK and Alaska
B. AK and ALASKA
C. Error code 244 and isam 107.
D. The session waits until user one is finished processing.
Answer: B

certification IBM   000-918 examen   000-918   certification 000-918

NO.8 Which type of backup and restore (BAR) utility would be suited for restoring a single table from a level 0
backup to a specific point in time?
A. onbar
B. ontape
C. archecker
D. onarchive
Answer: C

certification IBM   000-918   000-918   certification 000-918   certification 000-918

NO.9 Which two protocols are used on a Linux platform for IPC connections? (Choose two.)
A. fast fiber
B. shared memory
C. stream pipe
D. named pipe
E. local loopback
Answer: BC

IBM   000-918   000-918   000-918 examen

NO.10 Both standard and temporary dbspaces are listed in the DBSPACETEMP configuration parameter or
environment variable. Which rule applies?
A. Sort, backup, implicit, and non-logging explicit temporary tables are created in temporary dbspaces if
adequate space
exists.
B. Backup, implicit, and non-logging explicit temporary tables are created in temporary dbspaces if
adequate space exists. Sort temporary tables are specified by the PSORT_DBTEMP environment
variable.
C. Sort, backup, implicit, and non-logging explicit temporary tables are created in all available dbspaces if
adequatespace exists.
D. Explicit temporary tables created without the WITH NO LOG option are created in the root dbspace.
Answer:A

IBM examen   000-918   000-918

NO.11 Which two statements are true for an hierarchical routing topology when setting up SQLHOSTS
server group?(Choose two.)
A. Root and nonroot servers only need to maintain their leaf node server groups.
B. Root and nonroot servers must each maintain all server groups within the enterprise.
C. Enterprise Replication will transmit exactly the SQLHOSTS information, there is no need to maintain
them.
D. Each leaf server must have SQLHOSTS information only for itself and its parent.
E. SQLHOSTS entries for nodes that do not directly connect are not required.
Answer: BD

IBM   000-918   000-918   000-918

NO.12 Click the Exhibit button.
Given the sqexplain output in the exhibit, which SQL statement will make the est_rows column accurate?
<e ip="918-a-1.jpg"></e>
A. update statistics high for table
B. update statistics high for systables
C. update statistics high for table orders
D. update statistics high for table customer
Answer:A

IBM   000-918   000-918   000-918   000-918

NO.13 Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, how does an IDS database administrator or programmer ensure that only committed data
will be seen and that no locking errors will occur?
<e ip="918-a-3.jpg"></e>
A. Change user 1 isolation level to dirty read.
B. Change user 2 isolation level to dirty read.
C. Change user 1 isolation level to committed read last committed.
D. Change user 2 isolation level to committed read last committed.
Answer: D

certification IBM   000-918   000-918   000-918   000-918

NO.14 When determining the physical log size, what should you consider?
A. RTO_SERVER_RESTART configuration parameter
B. DYNAMIC_LOGS configuration parameter
C. PHYSBUFF configuration parameter
D. LOGFILES configuration parameter
Answer:A

IBM   000-918   000-918   000-918

NO.15 An IDS server has its LRU_MIN_DIRTY set to 1 and its LRU_MAX_DIRTY set to 2. Occasionally the
checkpointblocks user transactions from doing updates to the database for too long. How should the
database administrator correct
this situation?
A. Set onconfig parameter AUTO_CKPT to 1 and follow any advice in online.log.
B. Increase the number of page cleaners (i.e. flushers).
C. Increase the buffer pool size.
D. Set the onconfig parameter RTO_SERVER_RESTART to "on".
Answer:A

certification IBM   000-918 examen   000-918 examen   certification 000-918   000-918

NO.16 An Informix database server has been configured with the following parameters:
BAR_MAX_BACKUP 5
BAR_NB_XPORT_COUNT 4
BAR_XFER_BUF_SIZE 10
How many data buffers will be created during an onbar parallel backup attempt?
A. 50
B. 20
C. 40
D. 25
Answer: B

IBM examen   000-918   certification 000-918

NO.17 You detected excessive memory usage that might be caused by a memory leak in the application.
Which twocommands would be useful in this scenario? (Choose two.)
A. onstat -u
B. onstat -g sql -r 120
C. onstat -g ses -r 60
D. onstat -g mgm
E. onstat -g mem
Answer: CE

IBM   000-918   000-918   000-918   000-918

NO.18 What will the setting "SQLTRACE level=LOW,ntraces=2000,size=2,mode=global" within the Informix
onconfig file record?
A. statement statistics, statement text, and list of table names
B. statement text, host variables, and statement iterators
C. statement statistics, statement text, and statement iterators
D. statement text, statement iterators, and database name
Answer: C

certification IBM   000-918   000-918   000-918 examen

NO.19 Given the following message log information:
15.56:29 Physical Recovery Started at Page (1:1210).
15:56:29 Physical Recovery Complete: 147 Pages Examined, 10 Pages Restored.
15:56:29 Logical Recovery Started.
15:56:29 10 recovery worker threads will be started.
15:56:32 Logical Recovery has reached the transaction cleanup phase.
15:56:32 Logical Recovery Complete.
5 Committed, 2 Rolled Back, 0 Open, 0 Bad Locks
What would be the reason for the difference in 'Pages Examined' and 'Pages Restored' during physical
recovery?
A. The database server might physically log a page image multiple times between checkpoints.
B. The physical recovery restores only the first logged page image.
C. It is an expected behavior.
D. The physical log size is too large.
Answer:A

certification IBM   certification 000-918   certification 000-918

NO.20 Which memory area is used for log records for smart objects?
A. virtual portion of shared memory
B. logical log buffers
C. /tmp
D. DBSPACETEMP
Answer: B

IBM   000-918   000-918 examen   000-918   000-918

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Code d'Examen: 000-551
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM Certified Specialist - IBM Optim Implementation for Dist )
Questions et réponses: 122 Q&As

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NO.1 What are two possible locations where would you could find the fetch strategy chosen by Attunity when
working with an extended data source? (Choose two.)
A.nav.log
B.irpcd.log
C.optdbg.xml
D.db2trc file
E.admin_svc.log
Answer:A C

IBM examen   000-551   000-551   000-551

NO.2 Which statement is correct with respect to setting expectations around archive access and reporting?
A.Access to archive data performs just like a database.
B.ODM must be used to access the archives.
C.Access using ODM provides nearline access to archived data.
D.Archive data access should rarely be required.
Answer:C

IBM   certification 000-551   000-551   certification 000-551

NO.3 One Optim report provides detailed performance information about your Archive, Extract and Delete
processes, including basic table and selection criteria information as defined in the Access Definition, the
number of key values used to retrieve rows, and DBMS Access statistical information. This report is
essential for tuning your Optim processes. What is the name of this report and where do you indicate that
Optim produce the report?
A.Process Report; selected for creation on the Archive or Extract Process Request.
B.Show Steps Report; provided on Access Definition Editor.
C.Statistical Report; selected for creation on the Archive or Extract Process Request.
D.File Access Definition Report; selected for use on the Archive Process Request.
Answer:C

IBM   000-551   certification 000-551   000-551 examen   000-551

NO.4 Which requirement statement should raise a "red flag" within the Requirements Analysis Phase?
A.The business is seeking to privatize all personally identifiable information (PII) within the application.
B.Archiving of orders and associated data, including file attachments, older than 10 years.
C.Access to the archives just like a database.
D.Daily processing of archives from production.
Answer:C

IBM examen   000-551   000-551   000-551

NO.5 You have installed the Optim Server on an AIX system. The system is configured with various internal
and external storage options attached to the server. Where should the Optim Temporary Work folder be
placed?
A.the attached archive appliance
B.the attached NAS device
C.the system's internal disk drives
D.the attached SAN device
Answer:C

IBM examen   000-551   000-551 examen   000-551

NO.6 The Optim Initialization Exit facility provides which three benefits? (Choose three.)
A.Observes what is being done by a given user at various points in a programs logic.
B.Automates the reporting of Optim requests that fail.
C.Ensures that the users request meets your company security standards.
D.Changes the request, if needed, to pass your company standards or forbids the request altogether.
E.Adds support to Optim for new code pages.
Answer:A C D

certification IBM   000-551   certification 000-551   000-551

NO.7 You have exported an Archive Request and checked the 'export subordinate definitions' box. Which
types of objects might you expect to find in the export file?
A.Archive Request, Access Definition, Optim Relationships, Optim Primary Keys
B.Archive Request and Access Definition only
C.Archive Request, Access Definition, and Table Map
D.Archive Request, Access Definition, Storage Profile, Report Request
Answer:D

IBM   000-551   000-551 examen   000-551   certification 000-551

NO.8 What are three valid levels of Optim Security? (Choose three.)
A.Database Security
B.Object Security
C.Functional Security
D.Network Security
E.Archive File Security
Answer:B C E

IBM   000-551 examen   certification 000-551   000-551   000-551

NO.9 Click the Exhibit button. Referring to the exhibit, what would be a success criteria for the given use
case?
A.The performance of the application will improve.
B.The archive, purge, and all related processes for the Orders object completes in less than six hours.
C.The Optim processing will remove old Order data from the database and be accessible using ODM.
D.The weekly archive and purge processing completes in six hours or less.
Answer:B

certification IBM   000-551 examen   000-551   certification 000-551

NO.10 What is the primary purpose of the Optim Relationship Index Analyzer Dialog?
A.It automatically creates indexes regardless of the user's rights on the tables involved in relationships
used in all access definitions stored in an Optim Repository.
B.It reviews the last time the RDBMS statistics were updated for tables used in an access definition and
automatically issues the commands to update them if they have not been run since the last archive.
C.It analyzes the index b-trees and if they are inefficient, will drop and rebuild the index automatically or
can be scheduled.
D.It analyzes DBMS indexes for relationships used with the Access Definition and to create any needed
indexes, if the user has the correct privileges in the database.
Answer:D

IBM   000-551 examen   000-551

NO.11 Who are two project team members on an Optim Data Privacy project that would impact the data
privacy specific requirements? (Choose two.)
A.client's data privacy compliance representative(s)
B.application developers that have knowledge of the data model
C.storage experts
D.client business subject matter experts (SME) with knowledge of any local or international data privacy
requirements
E.systems architecture team
Answer:A D

certification IBM   certification 000-551   000-551

NO.12 When designing and building storage profiles that will include writing archived data to other than Tier 1
storage (e.g., Tape, WORM drive), which statement is correct?
A.All disk type and nondisk storage devices are fully supported by Optim.
B.Make sure to implement Archive File splitting, as Optim can only write split archive files to nondisk type
storage devices.
C.Make sure that archive files are no larger than 100 MB, as all nondisk supported storage devices can
only store data in 100 MB segments.
D.Local disk processing space is a consideration, since archive data may need to be written first to local
disk before any other storage devices.
Answer:D

certification IBM   000-551 examen   000-551 examen   000-551 examen   certification 000-551

NO.13 Given the choices shown below for storage: SAN, NAS, optical disk, Content Addressed Storage, and
tape Which archive data storage and access discussion should the IBM Optim implementation lead have
with the client project leads?
A.The lower cost storage medium will usually provide inadequate access to the archived data.
B.Always start with the least expensive storage medium and then increase access speed capabilities
based upon testing.
C.The archive access and reporting requirements should drive the decisions around archive storage.
D.Always start with the fastest storage medium and then move to slower medium over the data life cycle.
Answer:C

IBM   certification 000-551   000-551   000-551

NO.14 Given the command line syntax shown below: PR0CMND /R JOB=PERSONNEL' OUTPUT=PER.TXT
MONITOR+ QUIET+ Which task is performed?
A.Runs the job named PERSONNEL, places the process report output in a file named PER.TXT, and
displays prompts and error dialogs during the process.
B.Schedules a job named PERSONNEL, stores the extracted data in a file named PER.TXT, and displays
information dialogs during the process.
C.Runs the job named PERSONNEL, places the process report output in a file named PER.TXT, and
displays information dialogs during the process.
D.Schedules the job named PERSONNEL, stores the extracted data in a file named PER.TXT, and
displays prompts and error dialogs during the process.
Answer:C

IBM   000-551   000-551 examen   000-551 examen

NO.15 Click the Exhibit button. Which Optim high level architecture area is missing from the exhibit for an
archiving project requiring a Collection of Archive Files for data reporting and viewing?
A.Optim Server
B.Extended Data Source Manager
C.WebSphere Application Server
D.ODM Server
Answer:D

certification IBM   000-551   000-551   certification 000-551

NO.16 Which document should be reviewed and validated at the end of the design and build phase?
A.Optim configurations document
B.solution design document
C.project success measures document
D.testing criteria document
Answer:B

IBM examen   000-551   000-551 examen   000-551 examen   000-551   000-551

NO.17 Why is it important to use the multiple column feature of Optim masking functions (e.g., Lookup,
Hash_Lookup) when using those functions to mask multiple fields in a table?
A.Use of the multiple column feature makes coding a column map much easier.
B.Use of this feature is only a matter of preference.
C.The multiple column feature allows you to concatenate multiple columns into a single column.
D.This feature significantly improves performance during the masking process.
Answer:D

IBM   certification 000-551   000-551 examen   000-551   000-551

NO.18 In Optim implementations, which object aligns with the term "business object"?
A.Archive Request
B.Archive Reporting Tool
C.Access Definition
D.Archive File Collection
Answer:C

IBM   000-551 examen   certification 000-551   000-551 examen   000-551

NO.19 When using InfoSphere Federation Server to access Optim extended data sources, what must be
created to define a federated object?
A.a wrapper, a system definition, a user mapping, and a nickname
B.a wrapper, a server definition, a user mapping, and a DB Alias
C.a wrapper, a system definition, a nickname, and a DB Alias
D.a wrapper, a server definition, a user mapping, and a nickname
Answer:D

IBM   000-551 examen   000-551   certification 000-551   000-551   certification 000-551

NO.20 When performing an archive process that uses a Storage Profile, which action could be performed as a
result of using the storage profile?
A.Creates a connection to the database for use by the storage management device.
B.Creates a connection to the storage management device and copies an Archive File to a backup device.
C.Creates a storage allocation parameter for the storage or file management system.
D.Creates a duplicate of the existing information from the Archive Repository on the storage management
device.
Answer:B

IBM examen   certification 000-551   000-551   000-551 examen

NO.21 Click the Exhibit button. In what Optim Implementation Methodology deliverable would the information
shown in the exhibit be documented?
A.Solution Design
B.Installation Step by Step Guide
C.Requiremements Mapping
D.Production Run Book
Answer:A

certification IBM   000-551   000-551   certification 000-551   000-551   certification 000-551

NO.22 In Attunity, where is the metadata stored?
A.On the server where IRPCD is running.
B.In XML files where it can be manually updated.
C.In the Optim Directory where the DB Alias is found.
D.On the client where Attunity Studio is running.
Answer:A

IBM   000-551   000-551 examen   certification 000-551   000-551

NO.23 Click the Exhibit button. Given this information from the Relationships tab of an Access Definition, and
the information from this Show Steps report in the exhibit, why is the STATE_LOOKUP table listed as
UNTRAVERSED?
A.There is no active relationship for the STATE_LOOKUP table.
B.Q2 needs to be activated between SALES and STATE_LOOKUP.
C.Q1 needs to be de-activated between SALES and STATE_LOOKUP.
D.The relationship between SALES and STATE_LOOKUP is unselected.
Answer:B

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NO.24 An Archive File Collection is a list of Archive Files that are treated as a single data source by Open Data
Manager (ODM). Which two statements are true regarding Archive Collections? (Choose two.)
A.Use the Collections tab on the Archive Request Editor to specify the collection(s) in which the Archive
File should be added automatically.
B.An Archive File may belong to multiple Archive Collections, and an Archive Collection may contain
multiple Archive Files.
C.Archive Files contained within a collection do not need to be registered in the Archive Directory.
D.ODM, by default, processes the Archive Files in the collections in ascending date order based on the
dates the Archive Files were created.
E.An Archive File containing multiple tables with the same names and creator ids, but with different DB
Aliases, may be stored in an Archive Collection.
Answer:A B

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NO.25 Which performance enhancement do multiple database connections provide when used during an
extract or archive?
A.Multiple database connections allow you to extract/archive rows from multiple tables simultaneously.
B.Multiple database connections allow you to extract/archive rows from a single table concurrently.
C.Multiple database connections allow you to extract/archive rows only from Reference Tables
simultaneously.
D.Multiple database connections cannot be used during extract or archive, only during delete.
Answer:B

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NO.26 You can specify the default minimum retention period for protecting Archive Files on Centera from
deletion. How is the minimum retention period calculated?
A.from the time Centera copies the file
B.from the time the Archive Process copies the file to Centera
C.from the time that the Archive Process copies the file to the local file system
D.from the time Centera copies the file from the local file system
Answer:B

IBM   000-551   000-551 examen

NO.27 When positioning ODM as a mechanism to view archived data, which two capabilities would you
promote? (Choose two.)
A.Only ODM provides for access to individual archive files and collections of archive files.
B.ODM will provide for the same levels of accessibility regardless of the underlying storage medium.
C.ODM can implement row level security for archive data within the Attunity Workspace layer.
D.ODM facilitates Native Application Access.
E.ODM can be run stand-alone without Optim on the same machine.
Answer:A D

IBM   000-551   certification 000-551

NO.28 You are installing IBM Optim into an Oracle environment. Which statement is correct about user
permissions?
A.The installation user requires the DBA role.
B.The installation user is the only user that can run Optim.
C.The installation user's permissions must be deleted once the installation is complete and all DB Aliases
are created .
D.The installation user must have the SELECT ANY DICTIONARY role, unless the Oracle
07_DICTIONARY _ACCESSIBILITY initialization parameter is set.
Answer:D

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NO.29 What are two prerequisites to an Optim archiving Project Kickoff meeting? (Choose two.)
A.Obtain all Optim software required for project.
B.Set up hardware for all environment installations.
C.Review the Optim and application specific documentation.
D.Finalize all archiving requirements.
E.Choose the project sponsor.
Answer:A C

IBM   certification 000-551   certification 000-551   000-551

NO.30 What does an Access Control List protect?
A.the Optim program
B.nav_util
C.Optim Configuration tasks
D.any Optim object
Answer:D

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Code d'Examen: 000-M27
Nom d'Examen: IBM (Build Forge Technical Sales Mastery Date)
Questions et réponses: 46 Q&As

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NO.1 Which component of the Build Forge functional architecture provides a pre-flight build capability that
allows you to selectively choose local file changes and preview the build results before committing the file
changes to source code control?
A.IDE plug-in
B.MMC plug-in
C.Staging Tool
D.Build Forge AgentWArialTimes New RomanZ
Answer: A

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NO.2 How does Build Forge improve a customers software build-and-release process?
A.by facilitating centralized collaboration
B.by providing up-to-date compilers and debuggers
C.by dynamically producing product documentation
D.by facilitating scripted unit testingWArialTimes New RomanZ
Answer: A

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NO.3 What are the main business values that Build Forge brings to an organization?
A.secure, centralized role based console, developer self-service, accelerated build times
B.reduced cost of delivery, increased product quality, decreased time to market, and management
decision and support
C.Intelligent Bill of Materials, parallel processing through threading, and dynamic server management
D.dependency management, makefile acceleration, and reduced delivery costWArialTimes New
RomanZX
Answer: B

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NO.4 A software development company has a major customer that requires a previous release of their
software to be modified to run on Windows Vista.
Which software build-and-release best practice addresses this issue?
A.building early and often
B.build reproducibility
C.automation and integration
D.link to deployment environmentsWArialTimes New RomanZ
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which stage of the typical application development process is NOT automated in Build Forge?
A.Unit Testing
B.Requirements
C.Release
D.PackagingWArialTimes New RomanZ
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: COG-300
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM Cognos TM1 Analyst)
Questions et réponses: 42 Q&As

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NO.1 When a report requires data from multiple views, what must be inserted into an Active Form?
A.A title element
B.A chart
C.A section
D.A cube
Answer:C

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NO.2 Why would an analyst create a snapshot of a cube?
A.To access data with the In-spreadsheet browser.
B.To access data without access to a TM1 server.
C.To access data on a TM1 server.
D.To access data using TM1 web.
Answer:B

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NO.3 When reviewing data that will be uploaded into a cube, the rows and columns are static. Which of the
following would an analyst use?
A.Dynamic Slice
B.Cube View
C.Active Form
D.Classic Slice
Answer:D

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NO.4 Which worksheet function enables the end user to create their own subsets from the title dimensions?
A.DNEXT
B.VIEW
C.DFIRST
D.SUBNM
Answer:D

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NO.5 Why would an analyst create a subset?
A.To quickly see the top level elements.
B.To quickly see the top 5 values in a cube.
C.To change the dimension order.
D.To change the cube structure.
Answer:A

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L'avènement de la certification IBM pratique d'examen LOT-801 questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: LOT-801
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM Lotus Notes Domino 8 Application Development Update)
Questions et réponses: 120 Q&As

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NO.1 Bonnie has a Customer view in her application that has the following columns (in order): Customer
Name, Customer Address, Customer Phone, Customer Comments, Last Contacted. She would like to
maximize the amount of column space for the Customer Comments field. How would Bonnie accomplish
this in Designer?
A. Select the "Maximum Width" property for the Customer Comment column.
B. Set the Height indicator to 9 lines for the Customer Comments column.
C. Select the extend to use available window width property for the Customer Comment column
D. Add the column name to the xtend to use available window width property in the Customer view.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Beatrice created a new Composite Application database in the Notes 8 client, but when she opens it up
she sees a grey page that says "This Application page does not contain any content." What does she
have to do next?
A. Click the menu option "View - Design" to open the database in Domino Designer to edit the Composite
Application definition.
B. Click the menu option "Actions - Edit Application" to open the database in the Composite Application
Editor to edit the Composite Application definition.
C. Double-click the grey page to open the database in the Composite Application Editor to edit the
Composite Application definition.
D. Right-click the grey page to open the database in Domino Designer to edit the Composite Application
definition.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Myrtle is modifying the design of a View in a Notes database, so it can update a published Property that
the other components in a Composite Application can respond to. Where does she write code that
updates a Property?
A. In a view action
B. In the OnSelect event of the view
C. In the QueryModeChange event of the view
D. In the Initialize subroutine of the Global section of the view
Answer: B

IBM examen   certification LOT-801   LOT-801

NO.4 Kyle is designing a Composite Application that can send a user name from a form to a view, by clicking
a button on the form. He knows he wants to define a Wiring property called ReceiveUserName that will be
used when the view is receiving a user name string that is published by the form. When he opens the
Property Broker Editor to define "ReceiveUserName", what does he define it as?
A. Type
B. Action
C. Event
D. Property
Answer: B

IBM   LOT-801 examen   LOT-801   LOT-801

NO.5 Samir wants to design and deploy a Composite Application that consists of components from two Lotus
Notes databases that both reside on the same Domino Server. He would like to include the Composite
Application definition inside one of the Lotus Notes databases, to make it easier to deploy and replicate.
Can he do this?
A. No, a Composite Application definition must be hosted on a WebSphere Portal server.
B. No, a Composite Application definition must reside in a Lotus Notes database that is based on the
"Blank Composite Application" template.
C. Yes, he simply needs to click the "New Composite Application" button in the Composite Applications -
Application section of the Database design and begin writing the definition.
D. Yes, but first he needs to define the Composite Application in the Composite Application Editor and
save the resulting XML file. Then he can create a new definition in the Composite Applications -
Application section of the Database design and import the XML.
Answer: D

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NO.6 The new "Composite Settings" option in a View column Properties box allows you to specify what?
A. An Action to perform when a row in the view is selected
B. A Property to publish when a row in the view is selected
C. Whether or not to display the column when the view is used in a Composite Application
D. An alternate font type, size, and color to use for that column when the view is used in a Composite
Application
Answer: B

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NO.7 Victor has a Movie Rental Notes application with a Movie Inventory view. The database is not full-text
indexed, and users are complaining about the long search times when they attempt to search the
database. How can Victor prevent searching in this database if no full-text index has been created?
A. Select the don't allow simple search option in the Database properties.
B. Deselect the allow simple search option in the Movie Inventory view properties.
C. Deselect the allow simple search option in the Movie Inventory document properties.
D. Select the ponfirm full text index before search option in the Database properties.
Answer: A

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NO.8 The default view in the Notes 8 Contacts database allows you to display the information in the view
either on a single line (as with a traditional Notes view) or in a "business card" style format with each entry
displayed in an individual box and the boxes arranged in columns, scrolling vertically. To create a view
that allows this sort of "business card" format, what type of Layout Viewer do you need to specify in the
View Properties?
A. Tiled
B. Boxed
C. Vertical
D. Composite
Answer: A

IBM   LOT-801   certification LOT-801

NO.9 Luigi has created a view for his mail file that shows the size of the document. In that column, he would
like to display the size as either kilobytes or megabytes. How can Luigi accomplish this?
A. Set the number format for the column to Size(K/M/G)
B. Set the number format for the column to Bytes(K/M/G)
C. Set the Preferences For Display format for the column to Size(K/M/G)
D. Set the Additional Display Formatting for the column to Bytes(K/M/G)
Answer: B

IBM   LOT-801   LOT-801 examen   LOT-801

NO.10 Clarisa's agent needs to run every time the APP012 server is rebooted. There is no harm to data if the
agent runs repeatedly, but Clarisa would like to minimize the impact to server performance. How should
Clarisa trigger the agent to run?
A. Set the Runtime Trigger option to "On event", and select "When server starts".
B. Set the Runtime Trigger option to "On event", and select "On agent manager start".
C. Set the Runtime Trigger option to "On schedule". Select "Run once", and select the schedule option
"On server boot".
D. Set the Runtime Trigger option to "On schedule". Select "More than once a day". Clarisa should
determine how soon after a server boot the agent must be run. The schedule frequency should be set to
that amount of time.
Answer: A

IBM   LOT-801 examen   certification LOT-801

NO.11 Maxie is using the new "Defer index creation until first use" option in her views that have sortable
columns, in order to delay creation of these extra indices until they are needed. She notices that the extra
column indices are still being built immediately instead of being deferred. Why is this?
A. This option works only for categorized columns.
B. This option is related to the database's full-text index, not the view index.
C. This option is valid only when the view is used in a composite application.
D. The server administrator needs to set the ENABLE_ON_DEMAND_COLLATIONS=1 setting in the
server's Notes.ini file.
Answer: D

IBM examen   LOT-801 examen   LOT-801

NO.12 Linda has selected the database property Support Response Thread History for her Call Log
application. When she looks at the document fields in the Document Properties dialog box, she notices a
new field has been added to each new document. What field does Linda see?
A. $TUA
B. $REF
C. $SRTH
D. $REF2
Answer: A

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NO.13 The new Rich Text Lite "Thumbnail" input type allows you to specify the height and width of the
thumbnail image, along with what other attribute?
A. File type
B. Color depth
C. Image resolution
D. Attachment name
Answer: D

IBM   LOT-801 examen   LOT-801 examen   LOT-801 examen

NO.14 Thomas has utilized the right-click menu option feature in his application to show his custom actions.
He would like to present users with just the custom actions when they right-click with their mouse. How
can he accomplish this?
A. Remove the default menu items from the Action Bar of the view.
B. Deselect include action in Action Bar in the Action button properties of the view.
C. Deselect show default items in right-mouse menu in the Action Bar properties of the view.
D. Select emove default items in right-mouse menu?in the Action button properties of the view.
Answer: C

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NO.15 Timmy is designing a View and he wants to use the new "Split Action Button" option for one of his
Actions. He creates an Action with sub-actions and checks the "Display as split button" box, but the Action
doesn't work as a Split button when he looks at the view in his Notes client. Why is this?
A. Split Action buttons work only for Shared Actions.
B. Split Action buttons work only for Forms.
C. Split Action buttons work only for Composite Applications.
D. The "Enable Advanced Action Bar" setting in the View properties has not been checked.
Answer: C

IBM examen   LOT-801   LOT-801

NO.16 Nina has been asked to add several views to the Sales.nsf database, many of which are to include
multiple sorted columns and multiple user-sortable columns. How can she help minimize the impact to the
server from these new views?
A. Select the "Defer index creation until first use" Advanced Option from the Advanced tab of the
database properties.
B. Open each view that includes sorted or user-sortable columns. Select the "Defer index creation until
first use" Index option from the Advanced tab of the view properties.
C. Open each view that includes sorted columns. From the Sorting tab of the column properties of each
sorted column, select the "Defer index creation until first use" option.
D. Open each view that includes a user-sortable column. From the Sorting tab of the column properties of
each user-sortable column, select the "Defer index creation until first use" option.
Answer: D

IBM examen   certification LOT-801   LOT-801   LOT-801   LOT-801

NO.17 Barry has just closed the Property Broker Editor after specifying input and output Action parameters for
his Composite Application Editor (CAE). He notices a curved arrow icon in Domino Designer next to the
name of the Wiring Property. What should Barry do to ensure that his changes are saved within his
Domino application?
A. Click the "Refresh" button, and then click the "Open" button in the window that displays.
B. Nothing. The Property Broker automatically saves changes inside the Domino application.
C. Click the "Merge WSDLs" button and click "OK" in the confirmation prompt that then displays.
D. Open the Wiring Property properties and ensure that the "Store in NSF" option is selected. The
changes will be saved within the Domino application when Domino Designer is closed.
Answer: A

IBM   LOT-801   LOT-801 examen   LOT-801

NO.18 Kristen has been asked to develop a Composite Application to "wire" the Customer, Orders, and
Inventory applications together. She understands that this will result in communication among the
different pieces of the new application. How does this communication work?
A. Components use the Composite Application Broker to communicate with each other. The Composite
Application Editor is used to define Actions
and their parameters, and to configure Property Broker options.
B. Components use the Composite Application Broker to communicate with each other. The Composite
Application Editor is launched from Domino
Designer to define Broker Properties and configure Actions and their parameters.
C. Components use the Property Broker to communicate with each other. The Property Broker Editor is
launched directly from Domino Designer (or
can be launched via the CAE) to define Properties and configure Actions and their parameters.
D. Components use the Property Broker to communicate with each other. Domino Designer must first be
used to define the Wiring Properties.
Composite Application Broker options can then be configured using the Composite Application Editor or
from within Domino Designer.
Answer: C

IBM   LOT-801   certification LOT-801

NO.19 Scott has just created a new NSF-based Composite Application. He has added two components to his
application and is about to close the Composite Application Editor (CAE). What does he need to do if he
now wants to see how his Composite Application appears in the user interface?
A. Scott will not be able to open the Composite Application within the user interface yet. The database
launch properties must first be set to "Launch as Composite Application".
B. Nothing. The CAE is opened from within the Composite Application. When Scott exits the CAE, he is
automatically presented again with the Composite Application, open in the user interface.
C. Scott will not be able to open the Composite Application within the user interface yet. He will first need
to open the Composite Application using Domino Designer and set the Wiring Properties.
D. When Scott exits the CAE, he is back at the Notes Workspace, just as when exiting other NSF-based
applications. Double-click on the Composite Application's icon on the Workspace to open it in the user
interface.
Answer: B

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NO.20 When Bert is designing his Composite Application, he wants to have a Notes view that publishes a
UserName property to another view and also to a Notes form that is open in edit mode. How does he do
this?
A. He simply uses the Composite Application Editor to wire all three components together.
B. He creates one Composite Application that wires the two views together, and then a second
Composite Application that incorporates the first one, with the first view wired to the form.
C. Because each component can only publish a single property, he has to wire the first view publish the
user name to the second view, and then wire the second view to publish the user name to the form.
D. Because he can publish a property only to a single component, he has to make his first view publish
two properties (e.g. UserName1 and UserName2) that both have the same data, so that one of the
properties is wired to the second view and the other is wired to the form.
Answer: A

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