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Code d'Examen: 850-001
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Cloud Security 1.0)
Questions et réponses: 92 Q&As
Code d'Examen: ST0-079
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Symantec Brightmail Gateway 8.0 (STS))
Questions et réponses: 114 Q&As
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NO.1 What is a valid security concern when designing a cloud architecture that heavily leverages
SaaS
providers?
A. lack of a metered model from the cloud provider
B. inefficient workflows for change control
C. inherent flaws in web-based applications
D. inability to support iOS devices
Answer: C
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NO.2 A company is invested heavily in migrating their IT infrastructure to an IaaS cloud provider. It is
determined that the storage infrastructure of the service provider resides in a country with weak
laws on data privacy. As a result, the cloud service provider may be required to turn over the
company's data for legal review. Which action could the company take to prevent the cloud
service provider from disclosing the company's data?
A. require the service provider to encrypt the data
B. migrate the infrastructure to a new cloud provider
C. implement their own legal discovery solution
D. implement their own encryption solution
Answer: D
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NO.3 An organization has mandated that workflow for certain SaaS applications must travel over
slower
leased lines and through the company's cloud in order to mitigate security concerns of the CISO.
Which end user behavior vulnerability can this cause?
A. waiting until close of business to send their data
B. lack of concern with international charges
C. finding an alternate network path
D. disabling personal firewall to maximize bandwidth
Answer: C
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NO.4 An enterprise is in the process of moving application servers to a cloud-based IaaS platform.
Which technology should an IT professional use to assess the risk of the IT assets in a business
context?
A. Symantec Control Compliance Suite
B. Symantec Critical Systems Protection
C. Symantec Data Loss Prevention
D. Symantec Validation and Identity Protection
Answer: D
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NO.5 Which factor exists in many organizations that inhibits an effective IT Governance, Risk, and
Compliance program?
A. High-level reports and dashboards provide a C-Level view of the enterprise risk posture.
B. Policies tied to controls are defined to address multiple regulations and frameworks.
C. Technical controls on assets from multiple business units are regularly evaluated to determine
aggregate risk.
D. Numerous assessment tools are deployed throughout the enterprise, generating vendorspecific
reports.
Answer: D
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NO.6 A company is reaching their maximum CPU load for their email and Web servers, and begins
investigation of public IaaS cloud bursting. The company is concerned about complex attack
vectors launched against the hosted systems. To protect the assets, a number of Symantec
security products will also be migrated. Which Symantec security solution provides continuous
system visibility across all devices and facilitates detection of complex attack vectors?
A. Critical System Protection
B. Security Information Manager
C. Gateway Security
D. Endpoint Protection with Network Threat Protection
Answer: B
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NO.7 What is the most effective strategy for an IT professional to implement an IT governance, risk,
and
compliance solution in a private cloud?
A. use a checkbox approach to gather IT controls manually to identify high-risk vulnerabilities
B. utilize Excel spreadsheets, email-based questionnaires, or SharePoint sites to thoroughly
document IT controls
C. ensure anti-virus is deployed on all critical assets to stay ahead of threats and avoid data
breaches
D. put an automated program in place to identify vulnerabilities and security gaps and to track
remediation
Answer: A
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NO.8 A cloud service customer is facing application failure and data corruption in their virtual
infrastructure. The IT department has asked for a solution that will scan for rogue virtual machines,
which will reduce the security risk in physical and virtual infrastructure. Which solution can fulfill
the requirement?
A. Symantec Critical Systems Protection
B. Symantec Control Compliance Suite
C. Symantec Endpoint Protection
D. Symantec Security Information Manager
Answer: B
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